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NEW QUESTION # 74
When a government's health division established the complete privacy regulation for only the health market, which privacy protection reference model is being used?
- A. Self-regulatory
- B. Comprehensive
- C. Sectoral
- D. Co-regulatory
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Sectoral is a privacy protection reference model that refers to a system of laws and regulations that apply to specific sectors or industries within a jurisdiction, such as health, finance, education or telecommunications.
Sectoral privacy protection is typically characterized by having different rules and standards for different types of personal data or data processing activities, depending on the sensitivity and value of the data or the impact and risk of the processing. When a government's health division established the complete privacy regulation for only the health market, it is using a sectoral privacy protection reference model, as it is addressing the specific needs and challenges of the health sector in terms of privacy protection. The other options are not applicable in this scenario. Co-regulatory is a privacy protection reference model that refers to a system of laws and regulations that are supplemented by self-regulation mechanisms, such as codes of conduct, standards or certification schemes, developed by industry associations or professional bodies with oversight from government agencies or regulators. Comprehensive is a privacy protection reference model that refers to a system of laws and regulations that apply to all sectors and industries within a jurisdiction, regardless of the type or nature of personal data or data processing activities. Self-regulatory is a privacy protection reference model that refers to a system of laws and regulations that rely on voluntary compliance by organizations with their own policies and procedures, without any external oversight or enforcement from government agencies or regulators1, p. 63-64 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent the exposure of personal information when redeploying laptops within an organization?
- A. Reinstall the operating system and enable laptop encryption.
- B. Set a unique static IP for the default network interface.
- C. Disable all wireless networking in the group policy.
- D. Perform a full wipe and reimage of the laptops.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Performing a full wipe and reimage of the laptops is the best control to prevent the exposure of personal information when redeploying laptops within an organization. This is because a full wipe and reimage ensures that all data, including personal information, is securely erased from the laptops and replaced with a fresh installation of the operating system and applications. This reduces the risk of data leakage, unauthorized access, or data recovery by malicious actors or unauthorized users. The other options are not as effective or sufficient as a full wipe and reimage, as they do not guarantee the complete removal of personal information from the laptops.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 147
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk of compromise when transferring personal information using email?
- A. Private cloud storage space
- B. Password-protected .zip files
- C. Centrally managed encryption
- D. End user-managed encryption
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Encryption is a security practice that transforms data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption protects the confidentiality and integrity of data, especially when they are transferred using email or other communication channels. Encryption ensures that only authorized parties can access and use the data, while unauthorized parties cannot decipher or modify the data without the key or algorithm.
Encryption also helps to comply with data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA), which require data controllers and processors to implement appropriate technical and organizational measures to safeguard personal data.
Centrally managed encryption is a type of encryption that is implemented and controlled by a central authority or system, such as an organization or a service provider. Centrally managed encryption has the following advantages over end user-managed encryption, private cloud storage space, or password-protected .zip files, for reducing the risk of compromise when transferring personal information using email:
It can enforce consistent and standardized encryption policies and procedures across the organization or the service, such as the encryption standards, algorithms, keys, modes, and formats.
It can automate the encryption and decryption processes for the users, without requiring them to perform any manual actions or install any software or plug-ins on their devices.
It can monitor and audit the encryption activities and incidents, and provide visibility and accountability for the data protection and compliance status.
It can reduce the human errors or negligence that may compromise the encryption security, such as losing or sharing the keys, forgetting or reusing the passwords, or sending the data to the wrong recipients.
References:
Encryption in the Hands of End Users - ISACA, section 2: "A key goal of encryption is to protect the file even when direct access is possible or the transfer is intercepted." The Complexity Conundrum: Simplifying Data Security - ISACA, section 3: "Centrally managed encryption solutions can help enterprises overcome these challenges by providing a unified platform for encrypting data across different environments and applications." Email Encryption: What You Need to Know - Lifewire, section 1: "Email encryption is a way of protecting your email messages from being read by anyone other than the intended recipients."
NEW QUESTION # 77
Which of the following hard drive sanitation methods provides an organization with the GREATEST level of assurance that data has been permanently erased?
- A. Degaussing the drive
- B. Crypto-shredding the drive
- C. Factory resetting the drive
- D. Reformatting the drive
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which of the following is the BEST way to limit the organization's potential exposure in the event of consumer data loss while maintaining the traceability of the data?
- A. Use a unique hashing algorithm.
- B. Encrypt the data at rest.
- C. Require a digital signature.
- D. De-identify the data.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following rights is an important consideration that allows data subjects to request the deletion of their data?
- A. The right to withdraw consent
- B. The right to object
- C. The right to be forgotten
- D. The right to access
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reference:
The right to be forgotten is a privacy right that allows individuals to request the deletion or removal of their personal data from a data controller's records or systems under certain conditions. The right to be forgotten is an important consideration that allows data subjects to request the deletion of their data, as it reflects the principles of data minimization and storage limitation, which require limiting the collection, storage and processing of personal data to what is necessary and relevant for the intended purposes, and deleting or disposing of personal data when it is no longer needed or justified. The right to be forgotten also empowers the data subjects to exercise control and choice over their personal data and to protect their privacy interests. The other options are not relevant to the consideration that allows data subjects to request the deletion of their data. The right to object is a privacy right that allows individuals to oppose the processing of their personal data based on their particular situation or for direct marketing purposes, but it does not necessarily result in the deletion or removal of their data. The right to withdraw consent is a privacy right that allows individuals to revoke their permission or agreement for the processing of their personal data for specific purposes, but it does not necessarily result in the deletion or removal of their data. The right to access is a privacy right that allows individuals to obtain a copy or confirmation of their personal data held by a data controller, but it does not necessarily result in the deletion or removal of their data1, p. 107-108 Reference: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which of the following should be done FIRST when a data collection process is deemed to be a high-level risk?
- A. Implement remediation actions to mitigate privacy risk.
- B. Conduct a privacy Impact assessment (PIA).
- C. Create a system of records notice (SORN).
- D. Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first thing to do when a data collection process is deemed to be a high-level risk is to conduct a privacy impact assessment (PIA). A PIA is a systematic process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of personal data processing operations on the privacy of individuals and the organization. A PIA helps to identify privacy risks and mitigation strategies at an early stage of the data collection process and ensures compliance with legal and regulatory requirements. A PIA also helps to demonstrate accountability and transparency to stakeholders and data subjects regarding how their personal data are collected, used, shared, stored, or deleted.
Performing a business impact analysis (BIA), implementing remediation actions to mitigate privacy risk, or creating a system of records notice (SORN) are also important steps for managing privacy risk, but they are not the first thing to do. Performing a BIA is a process of analyzing the potential impacts of disruptive events on the organization's critical functions, processes, resources, or objectives. A BIA helps to determine the recovery priorities, strategies, and objectives for the organization in case of a disaster or crisis. Implementing remediation actions is a process of applying corrective or preventive measures to reduce or eliminate the privacy risks identified by the PIA or other methods. Remediation actions may include technical, organizational, or legal solutions, such as encryption, access control, consent management, or contractual clauses. Creating a SORN is a process of publishing a public notice that describes the existence and purpose of a system of records that contains personal data under the control of a federal agency. A SORN helps to inform the public about how their personal data are collected and maintained by the agency and what rights they have regarding their data.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing policies and procedures for system hardening?
- A. It reduces exposure of data.
- B. It eliminates attack motivation for data.
- C. It reduces external threats to data.
- D. It increases system resiliency.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
System hardening is a process of applying security measures and configurations to a system to reduce its attack surface and enhance its resistance to threats. System hardening can include disabling unnecessary services, removing default accounts, applying patches and updates, enforcing strong passwords and encryption, and implementing firewalls and antivirus software. The primary benefit of system hardening is that it increases system resiliency, which is the ability of a system to withstand or recover from adverse events that could affect its functionality or performance. The other options are not the primary benefits of system hardening, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes. System hardening does not necessarily reduce external threats to data, as threats can originate from various sources and vectors. System hardening may reduce exposure of data, but only if the data is stored or processed by the system. System hardening does not eliminate attack motivation for data, as attackers may have different motives and incentives for targeting data. , p. 91-92 References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
NEW QUESTION # 82
What is the BEST method to protect customers' personal data that is forwarded to a central system for analysis?
- A. Pseudonymization
- B. Deletion
- C. Anonymization
- D. Encryption
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 83
An organization is creating a personal data processing register to document actions taken with personal data.
Which of the following categories should document controls relating to periods of retention for personal data?
- A. Data archiving
- B. Data storage
- C. Data input
- D. Data acquisition
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
However, the risks associated with long-term retention have compelled organizations to consider alternatives; one is data archival, the process of preparing data for long-term storage. When organizations are bound by specific laws to retain data for many years, archival provides a viable opportunity to remove data from online transaction systems to other systems or media.
Data archiving is the process of moving data that is no longer actively used to a separate storage device for long-term retention. Data archiving helps to reduce the cost and complexity of data storage, improve the performance and availability of data systems, and comply with data retention policies and regulations. Data archiving should document controls relating to periods of retention for personal data, such as the criteria for determining the retention period, the procedures for deleting or anonymizing data after the retention period expires, and the mechanisms for ensuring the integrity and security of archived data. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 123
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following features should be incorporated into an organization's technology stack to meet privacy requirements related to the rights of data subjects to control their personal data?
- A. Allowing individuals to have direct access to their data
- B. Establishing a data privacy customer service bot for individuals
- C. Providing system engineers the ability to search and retrieve data
- D. Allowing system administrators to manage data access
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Any organization collecting information about EU residents is required to operate with transparency in collecting and using their personal information. Chapter III of the GDPR defines eight data subject rights that have become foundational for other privacy regulations around the world:
Right to access personal data. Data subjects can access the data collected on them.
One of the privacy requirements related to the rights of data subjects is the right to access, which means that individuals have the right to obtain a copy of their personal data, as well as information about how their data is processed, by whom, for what purposes, and for how long. To meet this requirement, an organization's technology stack should incorporate features that allow individuals to have direct access to their data, such as self-service portals, dashboards, or applications. This way, individuals can exercise their right to access without relying on intermediaries or manual processes, which can be inefficient, error-prone, or insecure. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 137
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following is the GREATEST obstacle to conducting a privacy impact assessment (PIA)?
- A. The value proposition of a PIA is not understood by management.
- B. The organization lacks knowledge of PIA methodology.
- C. Conducting a PIA requires significant funding and resources.
- D. PIAs need to be performed many times in a year.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 86
An email opt-in form on a website applies to which privacy principle?
- A. Consent
- B. Accuracy
- C. Transparency
- D. Integrity
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference:
Consent is a privacy principle that requires obtaining the permission or agreement of the data subjects before collecting, using, disclosing or transferring their personal data for specific purposes. Consent can be explicit or implicit, depending on the context and nature of the data processing activity and the applicable laws and regulations. An email opt-in form on a website is an example of obtaining explicit consent from the data subjects who voluntarily provide their email address and agree to receive marketing communications from the website owner or operator. The other options are not relevant to an email opt-in form on a website. Accuracy is a privacy principle that requires ensuring that the personal data is correct, complete and up-to-date. Transparency is a privacy principle that requires informing the data subjects about the identity and contact details of the data controller, the purposes and legal bases of the data processing, the rights and choices of the data subjects, and the safeguards and measures to protect the data. Integrity is a privacy principle that requires protecting the personal data from unauthorized or accidental modification, deletion or corruption. , p. 97-98 Reference: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
NEW QUESTION # 87
An organization uses analytics derived from archived transaction data to create individual customer profiles for customizing product and service offerings. Which of the following is the IT privacy practitioner's BEST recommendation?
- A. Anonymize personal data.
- B. Discontinue the creation of profiles.
- C. Implement strong access controls.
- D. Encrypt data at rest.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Anonymization is a technique that removes or modifies all identifiers in a data set to prevent or limit the identification of the data subjects. Anonymization is the IT privacy practitioner's best recommendation for an organization that uses analytics derived from archived transaction data to create individual customer profiles for customizing product and service offerings, as it would protect the privacy of the customers by reducing the linkability of the data set with their original identity, and also comply with the data minimization principle that requires limiting the collection, storage and processing of personal data to what is necessary and relevant for the intended purposes. Anonymization would also preserve some characteristics or patterns of the original data that can be used for analysis or customization purposes, without compromising the accuracy or quality of the results. The other options are not as effective as anonymization in this situation. Discontinuing the creation of profiles is not a feasible or desirable option, as it would prevent the organization from achieving its business objectives and providing value to its customers. Implementing strong access controls is a security measure that restricts who can access, view or modify the data, but it does not address the issue of collecting or retaining more personal data than necessary or relevant. Encrypting data at rest is a security measure that transforms plain text data into cipher text using an algorithm and a key, making it unreadable by unauthorized parties, but it does not address the issue of collecting or retaining more personal data than necessary or relevant, and may require additional security measures to protect the encryption keys or certificates1, p. 75-76 Reference: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
NEW QUESTION # 88
Transport Layer Security (TLS) provides data integrity through:
- A. exchange of digital certificates.
- B. calculation of message digests.
- C. use of File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
- D. asymmetric encryption of data sets.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a protocol that provides secure communication over the internet by encrypting and authenticating data. TLS provides data integrity through the calculation of message digests, which are cryptographic hashes that summarize the content and structure of a message. The sender and the receiver of a message can compare the message digests to verify that the message has not been altered or corrupted during transmission. TLS also uses digital certificates, asymmetric encryption, and symmetric encryption to provide confidentiality and authentication, but these are not directly related to data integrity.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following is the MOST important privacy consideration when developing a contact tracing application?
- A. Retention period for data storage
- B. The proportionality of the data collected tor the intended purpose
- C. Whether the application can be audited for compliance purposes
- D. The creation of a clear privacy notice
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The proportionality of the data collected for the intended purpose is the most important privacy consideration when developing a contact tracing application. This means that the application should only collect the minimum amount of personal data necessary to achieve the specific and legitimate purpose of preventing and controlling the spread of COVID-191. The application should also ensure that the data collected are relevant, adequate, and not excessive in relation to the purpose2. The application should avoid collecting or processing any data that are not essential for the purpose, such as location data, biometric data, or health data unrelated to COVID-193. The application should also respect the data minimization principle, which requires that the data are kept for no longer than necessary for the purpose4. References:
European Data Protection Board Guidelines 04/2020 on the use of location data and contact tracing tools in the context of the COVID-19 outbreak Article 5(1) of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) Article 29 Data Protection Working Party Opinion 04/2017 on the Proposed Regulation for the ePrivacy Regulation Article 5(1)(e) of the GDPR
NEW QUESTION # 90
An organization is concerned with authorized individuals accessing sensitive personal customer information to use for unauthorized purposes. Which of the following technologies is the BEST choice to mitigate this risk?
- A. Mobile device management (MDM)
- B. User behavior analytics
- C. Email filtering system
- D. Intrusion monitoring
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
User behavior analytics is a technology that uses data analysis and machine learning to monitor, detect and respond to anomalous or malicious user activities, such as accessing sensitive personal customer information to use for unauthorized purposes. User behavior analytics is the best choice to mitigate this risk, as it would help to identify and prevent insider threats, data breaches, fraud or misuse of data by authorized individuals.
User behavior analytics can also help to enforce policies and controls, such as access control, audit trail or data loss prevention. The other options are not as effective as user behavior analytics in mitigating this risk. Email filtering system is a technology that scans and blocks incoming or outgoing emails that contain spam, malware or phishing attempts, but it does not address the issue of authorized individuals accessing sensitive personal customer information to use for unauthorized purposes. Intrusion monitoring is a technology that monitors and alerts on unauthorized or malicious attempts to access a system or network, but it does not address the issue of authorized individuals accessing sensitive personal customer information to use for unauthorized purposes. Mobile device management (MDM) is a technology that manages and secures mobile devices that are used to access or store organizational data, but it does not address the issue of authorized individuals accessing sensitive personal customer information to use for unauthorized purposes1, p. 92 References: 1:
CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following should be done FIRST to address privacy risk when migrating customer relationship management (CRM) data to a new system?
- A. Conduct a legitimate interest analysis (LIA).
- B. Perform a privacy impact assessment (PIA).
- C. Obtain consent from data subjects.
- D. Develop a data migration plan.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 92
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